(urth) Quasi Christ?
Son of Witz
sonofwitz at butcherbaker.org
Mon Feb 9 12:28:52 PST 2009
>From: John Watkins [mailto:john.watkins04 at gmail.com]
>> I'm sure this will illustrate my ignorance in these waters, but...
>> Isn't the notion of this Redemption that Christ achieved exegesis?
>> Or is it textual in the NT?
>> And isn't the notion of him being "Son of God" exegesis? I mean, he
>> doesn't say as much right? Doesn't he say "Son of Man" ?
>Do you mean the New Testament or the Gospels? In the Gospel of John Jesus
>obliquely lays claim to divinity twice. In the other Gospels he is
>reticent. It is fairly clear the the historical Jesus, if there was such a
>person, did not go around trumpeting himself as a divine being.
>In the remainder of the New Testament, however, both the redemptive effect
>of the crucifixion and Jesus's divine nature are regularly discussed.
I'm actually not sure of the difference.
thanks for your explanation.
>> I'll admit having not grappled with that text very well
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