(urth) Quasi Christ?

[Son of Witz]

>-----Original Message-----
>From: John Watkins [mailto:john.watkins04 at gmail.com]

>> Matthew,
>> I'm sure this will illustrate my ignorance in these waters, but...
>> Isn't the notion of this Redemption that Christ achieved exegesis?
>> Or is it textual in the NT?
>> And isn't the notion of him being "Son of God" exegesis?  I mean, he
>> doesn't say as much right? Doesn't he say "Son of Man" ?
>>
>
>
>Do you mean the New Testament or the Gospels?  In the Gospel of John Jesus
>obliquely lays claim to divinity twice.  In the other Gospels he is
>reticent.  It is fairly clear the the historical Jesus, if there was such a
>person, did not go around trumpeting himself as a divine being.
>
>In the remainder of the New Testament, however, both the redemptive effect
>of the crucifixion and Jesus's divine nature are regularly discussed.
>

I'm actually not sure of the difference.
thanks for your explanation.


>> I'll admit having not grappled with that text very well
>