(urth) Quasi Christ?
john.watkins04 at gmail.com
Mon Feb 9 12:13:08 PST 2009
On Mon, Feb 9, 2009 at 3:03 PM, Son of Witz <sonofwitz at butcherbaker.org>wrote:
> >-----Original Message-----
> >From: Matthew Weber [mailto:palaeologos at gmail.com]
> >Sent: Monday, February 9, 2009 11:19 AM
> >And why not a single instantiation of Christ for the whole universe? If
> >death of an infinite being suffices for the redemption of all creation,
> >what's the sense of repeating it?
> I'm sure this will illustrate my ignorance in these waters, but...
> Isn't the notion of this Redemption that Christ achieved exegesis?
> Or is it textual in the NT?
> And isn't the notion of him being "Son of God" exegesis? I mean, he
> doesn't say as much right? Doesn't he say "Son of Man" ?
Do you mean the New Testament or the Gospels? In the Gospel of John Jesus
obliquely lays claim to divinity twice. In the other Gospels he is
reticent. It is fairly clear the the historical Jesus, if there was such a
person, did not go around trumpeting himself as a divine being.
In the remainder of the New Testament, however, both the redemptive effect
of the crucifixion and Jesus's divine nature are regularly discussed.
> I'll admit having not grappled with that text very well, every time I get
> into the Bible, some massive thing throws me off. (Like why is Jesus in the
> line of David if that bloodline comes via Joseph, according to the begats?
> If Joseph isn't his father, how is he in the line of David? Lot's of
> questions like that come up every time I enter into the bible, and no one I
> ask has ever had a good answer. Hence I through it to you here, in the hopes
> that my tangent isn't totally unwelcome.)
> I ask these questions in the spirit of understanding, not to be
> argumentative or to debunk.
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