(urth) Oannes

Dan'l Danehy-Oakes danldo at gmail.com
Wed Mar 21 10:52:46 PDT 2012


Jeff Wilson wrote:

> Weren't they still subject to arbitrary use and abuse, and sale to other
> owners without consent?

The former, no. Roman slaves had well defined rights.

The latter ... I'm not sure about, I'd have to go back to my old
history books. I suspect that the answer is yes, though.

-- 
Dan'l Danehy-Oakes



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