(urth) Quasi Christ?

[Son of Witz]

>-----Original Message-----
>From: Matthew Weber [mailto:palaeologos at gmail.com]
>Sent: Monday, February 9, 2009 11:19 AM

>And why not a single instantiation of Christ for the whole universe?  If the
>death of an infinite being suffices for the redemption of all creation,
>what's the sense of repeating it?


Matthew,
I'm sure this will illustrate my ignorance in these waters, but...
Isn't the notion of this Redemption that Christ achieved exegesis?
Or is it textual in the NT? 
And isn't the notion of him being "Son of God" exegesis?  I mean, he doesn't say as much right? Doesn't he say "Son of Man" ? 


I'll admit having not grappled with that text very well, every time I get into the Bible, some massive thing throws me off. (Like why is Jesus in the line of David if that bloodline comes via Joseph, according to the begats?  If Joseph isn't his father, how is he in the line of David?  Lot's of questions like that come up every time I enter into the bible, and no one I ask has ever had a good answer. Hence I through it to you here, in the hopes that my tangent isn't totally unwelcome.)  

I ask these questions in the spirit of understanding, not to be argumentative or to debunk.

~sonofwitz